A&P I Tutorial Comp Exam

A&P I Tutorial 2017 Comp Exam

 

1) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.

1. A) control center; effector; receptor
2. B) receiver; communicator; effector
3. C) receptor; control center; effector
4. D) effector; receiver; communicator
5. E) control center; receiver; effector

 

2) A person lying on the bed and gazing at the ceiling is in the ________ position.

1. A) prone
2. B) supine
3. C) anatomical
4. D) dorsal
5. E) caudal

 

3) A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a(n) ________ section.

1. A) frontal
2. B) transverse
3. C) oblique
4. D) parasagittal
5. E) coronal

 

4) How would the lack of a cofactor for an enzyme affect that enzyme’s function?

1. A) The enzyme’s function would not be altered.
2. B) The enzyme would function more slowly.
3. C) The enzyme would function more quickly.
4. D) The enzyme would not be able to function.
5. E) The enzyme would cease to function after reaching a maximum rate.

 

5) To bond two monomers together, a molecule of water must be ________ to/from monomers. This process is called ________.

1. A) added; hydrolysis
2. B) removed; dehydration synthesis
3. C) removed; crenation
4. D) added; denaturation
5. E) added; ionization

 

6) A nucleotide consists of a

1. A) five-carbon sugar and phosphate group.
2. B) five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base.
3. C) phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.
4. D) five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.
5. E) five-carbon sugar and an amino acid.

 

7) Molecules that store and process genetic information are the

1. A) proteins.
2. B) nucleic acids.
3. C) carbohydrates.
4. D) lipids.
5. E) steroids.

 

8) The center of an atom is called the

1. A) core.
2. B) hub.
3. C) middle point.
4. D) nucleus.
5. E) focus.

 

9) Ions with a negative charge are called

1. A) cations.
2. B) anions.
3. C) radicals.
4. D) positrons.
5. E) isotopes.

 

10) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called

1. A) maneuvers.
2. B) degrees.
3. C) pathways.
4. D) increments.
5. E) cascades.

 

11) Which of the following is false about DNA fingerprinting?

1. A) determined by repetitive protein sequences
2. B) unique to each individual with the exception of identical twins
3. C) used extensively during crime scene investigations
4. D) may be obtained from blood, semen, hair, and other tissues
5. E) based on short tandem repeats (STRs) in the DNA

 

 

12) During the synthesis of proteins, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA molecule that brings them to the ribosome has a(n) ________ that binds to a complementary codon in the mRNA.

1. A) enzyme
2. B) nucleotide
3. C) anticodon
4. D) promotor
5. E) transporter

 

13) A(n) ________ is a mutant of a regulatory gene that causes cancer.

1. A) neogene
2. B) plasmogene
3. C) toxogene
4. D) oncogene
5. E) monogene

 

14) A malignant neoplasm is often called a(n)

1. A) cancer.
2. B) tumor.
3. C) swelling.
4. D) infection.
5. E) All of the answers are correct.

 

15) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps?

1. Material moves from cisterna to cisterna by means of transfer vesicles.
2. Exocytosis
3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles.
4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face.
5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face.
6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins.
7. A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3
8. B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4
9. C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
10. D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2
11. E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5

 

16) The study of tissues is called

1. A) cytology.
2. B) toxicology.
3. C) micrology.
4. D) histology.
5. E) mycology.

 

17) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells.

1. A) epicrine
2. B) eccrine
3. C) holocrine
4. D) apocrine
5. E) endocrine

 

 

 

 

18) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells are termed ________, while these proteins are called antibodies.

1. A) T cells
2. B) B cells
3. C) plasma cells
4. D) immunocytes
5. E) phagocytes

 

19) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.

1. A) leukocytes
2. B) lymphocytes
3. C) chondrocytes
4. D) erythrocytes
5. E) mesenchymal cells

 

20) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?

1. A) mesenchymal
2. B) fibrous
3. C) elastic
4. D) hyaline
5. E) articular

 

21) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called

1. A) keloids.
2. B) scabs.
3. C) blisters.
4. D) scars.
5. E) pus.

 

22) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum

1. A) corneum.
2. B) lucidum.
3. C) granulosum.
4. D) spinosum.
5. E) basale.

 

23) Vitamin D3 is important for proper ________ development.

1. A) skin
2. B) bone
3. C) muscle
4. D) vision
5. E) neural

 

24) The drug tretinoin (Retin-A)

1. A) reduces the appearance of fine wrinkles.
2. B) minimizes scarring after surgery.
3. C) stimulates hair growth.
4. D) improves night vision.
5. E) is used to treat dandruff.

 

25) A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called

1. A) sepsis.
2. B) necrosis.
3. C) toxis.
4. D) pernicious.
5. E) noxious.

 

26) What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification?

1. A) connective tissue membranes
2. B) fibrocartilage
3. C) mesenchymal tissue
4. D) hyaline cartilage
5. E) Wharton’s jelly

 

27) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-related disease be prevented?

1. A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat.
2. B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair.
3. C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C.
4. D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair.
5. E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy.

 

28) In normal adult bones,

1. A) there is no turnover of minerals.
2. B) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year.
3. C) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed.
4. D) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases.
5. E) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

29) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification:

1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized.
2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue.
3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers.
4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.

 

What is the correct order for these events?

1. A) 4, 1, 2, 3
2. B) 2, 1, 3, 4
3. C) 4, 2, 1, 3
4. D) 2, 3, 1, 4
5. E) 3, 4, 2, 1

 

30) Which statement is true regarding calcium in bone matrix?

1. A) Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite.
2. B) Calcium is secreted by osteoblasts into the matrix.
3. C) Once deposited, calcium cannot be removed from bone.
4. D) Calcium provides flexibility to the bone matrix.
5. E) Calcium is the organic part of the matrix.

 

31) Identify the mismatched pair.

1. A) skull bones: 8 cranial and 14 facial bones
2. B) bones associated with the skull: 6 auditory ossicles and 1 hyoid bone
3. C) vertebral column: 24 vertebrae and 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx
4. D) thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles
5. E) there is no mismatched pair

 

32) The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain.

1. A) skull
2. B) centrum
3. C) cranium
4. D) cephalum
5. E) cortex

 

33) Infection of the large process on the temporal bone would be called

1. A) tinitis.
2. B) encephalitis.
3. C) meningitis.
4. D) petrositis.
5. E) mastoiditis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

34) An exaggerated lumbar curvature of the spine is known as

1. A) kyphosis.
2. B) lordosis.
3. C) scoliosis.
4. D) spinosis.
5. E) stenosis.

 

35) The ________ allow for a wide range of head movements.

1. A) hyoid bones
2. B) temporomandibular joints
3. C) cervical vertebrae
4. D) intervertebral discs
5. E) occipital condyles

 

36) The bones of the forearm, or ________, consist of the radius and ulna.

1. A) olecranon region
2. B) brachium
3. C) antecubital region
4. D) antebrachium
5. E) cubital region

 

37) The pelvic ________ is bordered by the coccyx, the ischial tuberosities, and the inferior border of the pubic symphysis.

1. A) brim
2. B) outlet
3. C) crest
4. D) inlet
5. E) spine

 

38) Identify the incorrect descriptor of congenital talipes equinovarus (club foot).

1. A) due to inappropriately developed arches
2. B) may involve one or both feet
3. C) may affect the tibia, ankle, and foot
4. D) feet are turned laterally and everted
5. E) may be treated with casts or supports in infancy

 

39) The three functions of synovial fluid are nutrient distribution, shock absorption, and

1. A) stabilization.
2. B) lubrication.
3. C) padding.
4. D) strengthening.
5. E) enzyme secretion.

 

 

 

40) A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe.

1. A) spur
2. B) blister
3. C) callus
4. D) bunion
5. E) pimple

 

41) A general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system is

1. A) rheumatism.
2. B) atherosclerosis.
3. C) bursitis.
4. D) bunions.
5. E) arthritis.

 

42) A muscle produces its highest tension when in complete

1. A) recovery.
2. B) treppe.
3. C) wave summation.
4. D) aerobic metabolism.
5. E) tetanus.

 

43) Identify the incorrect statement about a single motor unit.

1. A) The more neurons involved, the more powerful the contraction.
2. B) The smaller the number of muscle fibers, the more precise the movement.
3. C) Fine motor skills depend on the development of small motor units.
4. D) Some motor units include as many as 2000 muscle fibers.
5. E) Muscle fibers of one motor unit intermingle with the fibers of another motor unit.

 

44) Active sites become exposed when calcium ions bind to

1. A) tropomyosin.
2. B) actin.
3. C) myosin.
4. D) troponin.
5. E) calcium channels.

 

45) The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called

1. A) actinin.
2. B) titin.
3. C) nebulin.
4. D) myosin.
5. E) actin.

 

 

 

 

 

46) In a(n) ________ a portion of the stomach is forced upward through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity.

1. A) impingement syndrome
2. B) myalgia
3. C) gastritis
4. D) diaphragmatic hernia
5. E) tetany

 

47) The muscle that elevates the larynx is the ________ muscle.

1. A) masseter
2. B) buccinator
3. C) platysma
4. D) sternocleidomastoid
5. E) stylohyoid

 

48) If the anterior compartment of the lower leg was suffering from “compartment syndrome,” which of these muscles would be at risk of injury?

1. A) tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior
2. B) gastrocnemius and soleus
3. C) extensor digitorum longus
4. D) tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus
5. E) rectus femoris and the adjacent vastus muscles

 

49) Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him?

1. A) the masseter and buccinator
2. B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris
3. C) the orbicularis oris and risorius
4. D) the risorius and zygomaticus
5. E) the levator labii and mentalis

 

 

50) When the fulcrum is located between the load and the force, it is called a ________ lever.

1. A) first-class
2. B) second-class
3. C) third-class
4. D) fourth-class
5. E) compound