University of Iowa BIO 1412 Final Exam

Section 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE
Choose the best
answer for each of the following. [1pt each]
1. Christmas
cactus, or Schlumbergera, has showy red flowers. Though known as Flor de
Maio, or May
flower, in Brazil where it is found in nature, this popular houseplant starts
flowering in
midDecember in the Northern Hemisphere. Experiments show that it has a critical
daylength of 12
hours. What can you conclude about regulation of flowering in this plant?
A. It is a short
day plant.
B. It is a long day
plant.
C. It is a short
night plant.
D. It is day
neutral.
E. It requires
chilling before it can flower.

2. It should be
possible to trick a Christmas cactus to delay its blooming for Valentines Day
(February 14).
Which of the following would be the best way to do this? (Additional
information:
the autumnal
equinox is September 22).
A. Move the plant
into the refrigerator for 2 months, starting in October.
B. Make sure the
plant gets at least 13 hours of light every day, starting at the middle of
September, until
the middle of November, and then give it no more than 11 hours of light.
C. Keep the plant
in 24 hour light until Groundhogs Day (Feb. 2), and then transfer it to 12-hour
days.
D. Make sure the
plant gets at least 13 hours of light, starting at the beginning of September,
until February, and
then give it no more than 11 hours of light.
E. Grow the plant
on a windowsill with no artificial light until September 22. Then, keeping it in
the window, give it
a flash of far red light at midnight every day until the middle of December,
and then provide
natural lighting after that.
3. Many plants
defend themselves against herbivory by producing toxins. Since compounds
that are toxic to
animals are also usually toxic to plants, plants must have strategies to avoid
being poisoned by
their own biochemistry. These strategies include:
A. Isolation of
toxins in special compartments
B. Production of
the toxin only after cell damage has occurred.
C. Modification of
the plants enzymes or receptors so that the toxin is ineffective in that plant.
D. A and B
E. All of the above.

4. Tissue damage
from insects chewing on a leaf can cause the whole plant to ramp up
production of
compounds that deter herbivory. The steps that lead to this defense response, in
order, are:
A. activated
receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves through the phloem
stream, jasmonate
binds transcriptional repressor, transcription factor promotes synthesis of
protease inhibitor,
production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor
B. production of
elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate
production,
jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor, jasmonate moves through the phloem
stream,
transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor
C. production of
elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate
production,
jasmonate moves through the phloem stream, jasmonate binds transcriptional
repressor,
transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor
D. transcription
factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor, production of elicitor,
elicitor
binds receptor,
activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate binds
transcriptional
repressor, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream
E. transcription
factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor, production of elicitor,
elicitor
binds receptor,
activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves through the
phloem stream,
jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor
5. You can find
plants growing almost anywhere, including on land that is very dry. Which of
the following is
not found in plants adapted live in arid environments?
A. Stomata tucked
away in cavities or crypts on leaves.
B. Aerenchyma, a
tissue that stores oxygen
C. Deep roots for
collecting water far underground
D. A thick cuticle
and dense trichomes (hairs) on leaf surfaces
E. Succulence, the
storage of water in leaves or stems
6. A vegetative
shoot apical meristem is converted to the production of floral organs instead of
leaves by the
presence of a compound known as florigen. Which of the following steps is not
involved in florigen
action?
A. CO promotes the
synthesis of the transcription factor FT in the SAM.
B. FT forms a dimer
with FD in the SAM.
C. Inductive
photoperiod stabilizes the transcription factor CO in leaf phloem.
D. FT moves via the
phloem to the SAM.
E. FT + FD promote
the transcription of AP1, which results in sepal formation.
7. Plants grow
toward the light (phototropism) and against gravity as a result of asymmetric
growth stimulated
by redistribution of the hormone
A. Ethylene
B. Abscisic acid
C. Auxin
D. Gibberellic acid
E. Cytokinin
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Nodulation is an
adaptation that allows some plants to survive growing on soils poor in
Carbon
Iron
Nitrogen
Magnesium
Boron

9. The size of the
openings that allow gas exchange for photosynthesis, the stomata, is
regulated. Which of
the following is not important for opening the stomata?
A. Cell wall
reinforcements that make the guard cells curve when they fill with water
B. Blue light
receptors on the plasma membrane of guard cells that activate a proton pump
C. An increase in
water potential when proton export triggers an influx of K+ and Cl- ions in
guard cells
D. Chloroplasts in
guard cells, which start producing sugars when leaves are exposed to light.
E. All of the above
are important (changed at exam)
10. Eukaryotes
often engulf bacteria and other single cells in order to acquire nutrients, but
sometimes the
engulfed cell persists, which leads an endosymbiosis. Which of the following is
not an example of
endosymbiosis in eukaryotes?
A. Uptake of a
proteobacterium that became mitochondria
B. Uptake of
cyanobacteria that became chloroplasts in the ancestors of green plants
C. Uptake of red
algae that became the chloroplasts of brown algae
D. Uptake of
Rhizobium in root cortex cells of legumes
E. All of the above
are examples of ancient or modern endosymbiosis.
11. Eukaryotic
cells exhibit of number of features absent from prokaryotes which permitted
great
diversification of form. Which of the following is not important in this
process?
A. Cytoskeleton
upon which vesicles can move through the cell
B. Cytoskeleton
that allows cells to change shape
C. Endosymbiosis
leading to energy organelles
D. Microtubules for
accurate segregation of multiple chromosomes at cell division
E. None of the
abovethey are all important.
12. Sexual
reproduction increases diversity in a population by all of the following except:
A. Reassortment of
alleles on a chromosome
B. Increasing
chromosome number in each sexual generation
C. Blending of
genomes from two different parents
D. Promoting
heterozygosity that can mask deleterious mutations
E. All of the above
increase diversity in a population
13. The space
between neighboring cell membranes in epithelial tissue has been
experimentally
demonstrated to be largely due to the type of ___________ in these cells.
A. actins
B. cell adhesion
molecules (CAMs)
C. integrins
D. kinases
E. myosins
14. Which component
of a feedback mechanism is responsible for evaluating sensory inputs
and then triggering
appropriate responses?
A. Effector
B. Integrator
C. Sensor
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

3

15. The mechanism
of an antibody which occurs when the binding of the antibody inhibits the
function of the
molecule it binds to is (the) ______________.
A. agglutination
B. complement
response
C. neutralization
D. opsonization
E. precipitation
16. The innate
immune response:
A. lacks receptors
for foreign molecules.
B. has a few
receptors which bind foreign molecules of a class of pathogens.
C. has a few
receptors which bind foreign molecules of very specific pathogens.
D. has a wide array
of possible receptors which bind foreign molecules of a class of pathogens.
E. has a wide array
of possible receptors which bind foreign molecules of very specific
pathogens.
17. The notochord
in amphibians has the following function(s):
A. To become the
spinal column later in development.
B. To produce a
signal that induces overlaying ectoderm to become neural tissue.
C. To produce a
signal that organizes the somites.
D. All of the above
E. B. and C.
18. In mammalian
retina rod cells the membrane potential _________ when a photon is
absorbed.
A. depolarizes
B. hyperpolarizes
C. doesnt change
D depolarizes or
hyperpolarizes depending upon the color of the photon.
E. depolarizes or
hyperpolarizes depending upon the activity of nearby ganglion cells.
19. The movements
of granules of calcium carbonate called otoliths are involved with the
following sense(s):
A. head position
B. body movement
C. hearing
D. All of the above.
E. A. and B.
20. Binding of ATP
to myosin in striated muscle:
A. initiates the
power stroke.
B. knocks calcium
off of troponin.
C. recocks the
myosin to its extended conformation.
D. releases calcium
from the endoplasmic reticulum.
E. releases the
myosin from the actin.

21. ADH promotes
_______ by __________ the permeability of the ___________ to water.
A. antidiuresis;
decreasing; collecting ducts
B. antidiuresis;
decreasing; descending limb of Henle
C. antidiuresis;
increasing; collecting ducts
D. diuresis;
decreasing; collecting ducts
E. diuresis;
increasing; descending limb of Henle
22. Your aunts and
uncles are killed and you pledge to your mother to sacrifice your own hopes
and aspirations of
raising one child to raise your orphaned cousins. According to Hamiltons
rule what is the
minimum number of cousins you would need to raise for this to be worthwhile?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
E. 9
23. Which of the
following are costs associated with group living?
A. Groups are often
at greater risk of detection by predators
B. Members of
groups may face more competition for resources
C. Group living increases
the risk of transmitting communicable diseases
D. All of the above
E. A. and B.
24. Which of the
following is an abiotic factor in the environment?
A. facilitators
B. humidity
C. predators
D. prey
E. A., C. and D.
25. Which of the
following statements describes navigation?
A. Change in
movement direction or speed due to stimulus.
B. Moving passively
in a current.
C. Movement towards
or away from a source of stimulus.
D. Use of some sort
of compass to direct movement.
E. Use of landmarks
to direct movement or to find locations.
26. Which of the
following latitudes is most likely to have a desert and why?
A. Equator;
prevalent rising air cools and dries out
B. 30; prevalent
rising air cools and dries out
C. 30; prevalent
descending air warms and dries out
D. 30; prevalent
descending air cools and dries out
E. 60; prevalent
rising air cools and dries out
27. Which of the
following statements about viruses is false?
A. All domains of
life can be infected by viruses.
B. Viruses likely
evolved from cellular organisms.
C. Viruses, unlike
prions, contain nucleic acids.
D. Viruses have
smaller genomes than viroids.
E. Viral nucleic
acids can undergo recombination.

28. Which of the following aquatic life zones is most likely
to have lowest species richness?
A. Coastal zone
B. Estuaries
C. Freshwater lake
D. Intertidal zone
E. Pelagic zone.
29. Which of the
following is not a threat to prairies and prairie remnants in Iowa?
A. Expansion of
roadways
B. Herbicide use by
nearby farms
C. Incursion of
trees
D. Periodic fires
E. All of the above
are threats.
30. Which of the
following factors is likely to influence a biomes temperature and precipitation?
A. Latitude.
B. Proximity to a
large water mass.
C. Altitude of
biome and nearby geographic features.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C.
31. You mark and
capture 20 rodents in your local forest. In your second sample of the 100
rodents you
captured 5 were marked. What is the estimated population size of the population
of
the rodents?
A. 105
B. 120
C. 200
D. 400
E. 2000
32. A species which
has a Type I survival curve is most likely to:
A. have an average
lifespan which is short.
B. have a few
individuals which can potential be immortal.
C. have an equal
chance of dying at age 5 as at age 50.
D. die due to
senescence.
E. provide no
prenatal care to their offspring.
33. Which of the
following is an assumption of simple exponential growth models:
A. Population
density does not alter per-individual growth rates (r).
B. There are limits
to the size of the population.
C. Required
resources are not infinite.
D. Lag effects
exists and affect the rates of growth.
E. None of the
above.

34. Which of the
following would not be considered an Allee effect?
A. The same
concentration of pollution is more lethal to one fish than it is to ten fish.
B. The reproductive
success of male frogs decreases as the number of frogs at the breeding
ground decreases.
C. The likelihood
of starvation increases as the population increases in size.
D. The likelihood
of a zebra being preyed upon by a lion increases the smaller the size of the
zebra herd.
(Changed at exam)
E. All of the above
are examples of Allee effects.
35. A population is
growing logistically. As the population size increases and approaches the
carrying capacity:
A. the effective
per-individual growth rate (reff) increases.
B. the effective
per-individual growth rate (reff) decreases.
C. the effective
per-individual growth rate (reff) stay the same.
D. birth rates
increase while death rates decrease.
E. birth and death
rates stay constant.
36. Which of the
following would be consistent with a rectangular age structure? Note: this
question was
supposed to be
triangular not rectangular so B and C would be the answer. All answers will be
accepted
for credit since
none of them is completely right although for some of these rectangular nations
A is
happening.(Happy
Holidays)
A. Population
growth is negative with low birth rates.
B. Population
growth is slow with high death rates.
C. Population
growth is fast with low death rates.
D. All of the above.
E. B. and C.

37. Underdeveloped
countries tend to have low growth rates but high death and birth rates. As
countries undergo
development:
A. initially death
rates tend to fall along with birth rates; population growth continues at the
same pace.
B. initially death
rates tend to fall but birth rates remain high; population growth is
accelerated.
C. initially death
rates stay high but birth rates climb; population growth is accelerated.
D. initially death
rates climb even higher and birth rates remain high; population growth ceases
and the population
decreases in size.
E. No pattern is
commonly observed with development.
38. Optimization is
an example of:
A. density
dependent selection.
B. directional
selection.
C. disruptive
selection.
D. neutral
selection.
E. stabilizing
selection.
39. Which of the
following would be likely to be observed for brood reduction species?
A. Only one egg is
laid in years when resources are scarce.
B. All eggs are
incubated only after the last egg is laid.
C. The resources
provide in the eggs are much more costly to the mother than post-natally
provided resources.
D. Chicks are
altruistic with siblings.
E. Resources are
generally hard to obtain each year.

40. K strategist
are likely to:
A. be the prevalent
plants in a prairie.
B. have a large
number of offspring.
C. have young who
are precocial.
D. provide no
post-natal care.
E. None of the
above.
41. Which of the
following reproductive mechanisms is most likely for an R-strategist animal
species?
A. External
Fertilzation
B. Oviparous
C. Ovoviparous
D. Vivaporous
E. All of the above
are equally likely
42. Reznick
researched closely related guppies in pools on Trinidad. The guppies in
different
pools had
differences in their life histories due to differences in the ____________ and
these life
histories were
_________ when the guppies were moved to the other pools.
A. predator;
observed to change
B. predator; not
observed to change
C. prey species;
observed to change
D. prey species;
not observed to change
E. amount of prey;
not observed to change
43. Observed
differences in the life histories of the guppies from different pools included:
A. chromosome
number differences.
B. size at maturity.
C. sensory
abilities.
D. location on an
Eltonian pyramid.
E. None of the
above.
44. Species A and
Species B occupy an area and you suspect they interact. When you remove
species A the
number of individuals of species B quickly increases. Which of the following is
an
ecological
interaction which would be consistent with this observation along with an
appropriate
explanation?
A. competition; A
and B compete for a limiting resource
B. commensalism; A
benefits from the presence of B while A has no effect on B
C. amensalism; A is
harmed by the presence of B while A has no effect on B
D. mutualism; A and
B both receive a benefit from the other
E. predation; A is
the prey for predator species B.
45. In general
predation tends to ________ species diversity while competition ________
species diversity.
A. decrease;
decreases
B. decrease;
increases
C. increase;
decreases
D. maintain;
decreases
E. maintain;
increases

46. Which of the following
is the definition of a community?
A. An individual in
its niche.
B. A group of
organisms all of the same species.
C. A group of
organisms of different species interacting with each other in an area.
D. An environment
defined by its climate and geography.
E. None of the
above.
47. Deciduous
forests:
A. have warm
winters and hot summers.
B. have cold
winters and warm summers.
C. have fewer
species of birds than prairies.
D. have less
precipitation on average than prairies.
E. None of the
above.
48. As the number
of Batesian mimics increases:
A. the fitness of
the model and mimic decreases.
B. the fitness of
the model decreases and the fitness of the mimic increases.
C. the fitness of
the model increases and the fitness of the mimic decreases.
D. the fitness of
the model and mimic stay constant.
E. the fitness of
the model and mimic increases.
49. Which of the
following adaptations increases the likelihood of predator success in catching
prey?
A. Batesian Mimicry
B. Crypsis of the
prey
C. Exploitative
Mimicry
D. Homotpy of the
prey
E. Mullerian Mimicry
50. You observe an
inverted Eltonian pyramid which contains a greater biomass of herbivores
than producers.
This can occur because:
A. the environment
in this location allows the organisms residing there to not give off much
energy as heat.
B. this environment
contains a keystone predator.
C. the producers
have very low rates of growth, r, as compared to the herbivores.
D. the producers
have very high rates of growth, r, as compared to the herbivores.
E. the producers
and the herbivores both have very low rates of growth, r.
51. Emlens
experiments on Indigo Buntings demonstrated that when nave birds were
exposed to a sky rotating
around Betelgeuse (rather than Polaris) the night immediately prior to
migration the birds
are able to properly orient their migration. Just this result alone suggests:
A. an axis of
rotation is necessary and sufficient for orientation.
B. an axis of
rotation is necessary for orientation.
C. an axis of
rotation is sufficient for orientation.
D. an axis of
rotation is neither necessary nor sufficient for orientation.
E. Betelgeuse is
necessary for proper orientation.
52. Fundamental niches:
A. are the same
size or larger than realized niches.
B. can be limited
due to the species evolutionary history.
C. can be limited
due to competitive exclusion.
D. All of the above.
E. B. and C.
53. An Eltonian
pyramid of ecosystem A has fewer trophic levels than an Eltonian pyramid of
ecosystem B. A
likely explanation for this difference is:
A. Ecosystem A has
less herbicide and pollution than ecosystem B.
B. Ecosystem A has
more endotherms than ecosystem B.
C. Ecosystem A is
wetter than ecosystem B.
D Ecosystem A is
warmer than ecosystem B.
E. None of the
above.
54. The ecological
efficiency of a large reptile is 20%. Its consumption efficiency is 50% and its
assimilation
efficiency is 50%. What would be its net production efficiency?
A. 0.5%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 80%
E. 120%
55. Replacement of
fossil fuels with efficient biofuels would be expected:
A. to increase the
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B. to stabilize the
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
C. to decrease the
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
D. to reduce the
amount of methane in the atmosphere.
E. None of the
above.
56. A very large
portion of a small island in the Atlantic was cleared for an airfield during
World
War II. Soil was
significantly disturbed but the ground was not paved. After the war, the
airfield
was abandoned.
Years later plants and animals were observed to be recolonizing the airfield.
This would be an
example of:
A. biomagnification.
B. eusociality.
C. facilitation.
D. primary
succession.
E. secondary
succession.
57. Which of the
following gasses protects the surface of the planet from excess UV light?
A. carbon dioxide.
B. freon.
C. methane
D. nitrogen
E. ozone.
58. Habitat fragmentation promotes species
loss by:
A. decreasing edge
effects.
B. decreasing
remigration rates between habitat patches.
C. increasing edge
effects.
D. increasing
remigration rates between habitat patches.
E. B. and C.
59. Recent
anthropogenic changes to mass cycles include:
A. increases in the
release of carbon dioxide from geological stores.
B increases in the
fixation of nitrogen from the atmospheric compartment to enrich the
terrestrial
compartment.
C. increases in the
geological stores of water.
D. All of the above.
E. A. and B.
60.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Acid precipitation:
has been increasing
in the Northeast United States in the last 40 years.
has been observed
to increase the species richness of lakes.
results from the
burning of coal.
All of the above.
A. and C.

61. Which of the
following is not an example of an edge effect?
A. A grassland
predator invading the edges of the forest to hunt for food.
B. Trash from a
nearby highway falling onto the shores of a lake.
C. A sudden
increase of a forest predator leading to the loss of its forest prey and then
the
predators localized
extinction.
D. Wind gusts
blowing down trees on the outer perimeter of the forest.
E. All of the above
are examples of edge effects.
62. Which of the
following would likely lead to a species becoming endangered?
A. Ending trade in
products made from species.
B. Introduction of
an invasive competitor.
C. Restoration of
the species degraded ecosystem.
D. Restoration of
required disturbance to the ecosystem.
E. None of the
above.

Section 2: Short
Answer, Problems and Essays
Write your answers
in the space provided below.
1. This question
tests your knowledge of the characteristics that define the superkingdoms of
eukaryotes. Fill in
the blanks with the name of the group that has these features. [1pt ea; 5pts]
A.

have sacs under
cell membrane, unicellular only, have chloroplasts

B.

have pseudopods, no
chloroplasts, can aggregate

C.

have posterior flagella,
no chloroplasts, can be multicellular

D.

have unequal
flagella, have chloroplasts, can be multicellular

E.

lack mitochondria
but have chloroplasts, are single celled

2. Compare and
contrast the cardiovascular system of mammals with the vascular tissue
system of plants.
[6pts] Many more possibilities here! First well describe in each section
2pts; second is 1pt.
A. Describe two
similarities, either anatomical or physiological, between these two systems.
(3pts)
B. Describe two
differences, either anatomical or physiological, between these two systems.
(3pts)

12

13

3. In early spring
just prior to the mating season, a male sticklebacks belly region becomes red
and he constructs a
nest. He will then aggressively defend the nest from any intruding males.
Niko Tinbergens lab
tested the response of mating season male sticklebacks to artificial models
of fish [figures A.
through E.]. The results of his experiments is summarized below [5pts]

Model
Response
realistic fish (A.)
with red belly
high aggression
realistic fish (A.)
with green or grey belly
little to no
aggression
misshapen fish (B.
– E.) with red underside moderate aggression
misshapen fish (B.
– E.) with grey underside little to no aggression
A. Based upon the
above data, what aspect of the competitor male stickleback is the necessary
and sufficient sign
stimulus (or releaser) for this aggressive behavior. Explain your reasoning
clearly and
completely. (3pts)

B. This behavior
appears to be innate. Describe two characteristics of innate behaviors. (2pts)

14

4. You are the
research assistant of a famous biologist who studies island biogeography. He
has gone missing
after studying two islands: a smaller island (Y) far from the mainland and a
larger island (Z)
near the mainland. The only paper left behind is the following unlabelled
figure:

His family wants
you to prepare a final paper of his work. To begin this task on the figure above
label each of the
immigration and extinction lines with the appropriate island and clearly
indicate the
location on the x-axis of the predicted equilibrium species number for island Z
and
island Y. (6pts)

15

5. You are studying
the effects of nutrients and/or minerals on the growth of plants and algae in
a series of small
prairie lakes. [7pts]
A. Name one
nutrient or mineral which is often a limiting factor for growth of aquatic
plants and
algae. (1pt)
B. Design an
experiment (with a control) that could be used to test if the nutrient or
mineral you
named in A. was the
limiting factor for growth of the plants. Be sure to indicate the expected
results of the
experiment and control if it was limiting. (3pts)

C. Fill in the
blanks with the appropriate terms: The overgrowth of algae on the surface of
lakes
results in
_______________ of the lake. The aquatic plants die due to lack of ___________
and the aquatic
animals die to lack of _____________ in the lake. (3pts)
6. Consider the
following food chain [4pts]:
Predator M
Carnivores N/O/P Herbivores Q/R/S Producers.
A. What do you
predict the initial effect on the consumers of this food chain if the amount of
producers is
increased? Explain your reasoning. (2pts)

B. What do you
think the effect would be on carnivores N/O/P and herbivores Q/R/S if the
predator is hunted
to extinction? Explain your reasoning. (2pts)