1. In general, when selecting factors for a study, you want to be sure of which of these?a. they have been investigated beforeb. they are available to investigatec. they are not of interest to youd. they do not lead to another question2. Identify and select the correct order of steps in scientific inquiry.a. formulating a hypothesis, collecting relevant information, testing the hypothesis, working with the hypothesisb. reconsidering the theory, asking new questions, identifying the important factors, collecting relevant informationc. asking the question, identifying the important factors, asking new questions, testing the hypothesisd. asking new questions, reconsidering the theory, working with the hypothesis, testing the hypothesis3. Non experimental research methods consist of which of the following?a. test causal relationships between variablesb. only describe characteristics of existing phenomenonc. can be descriptive, historical or correlationd. examine factors that are not related4. Hannah assigns children to different teaching method groups and tests their math performance after six weeks. This is an example of what type of research?a. descriptiveb. historicalc. experimentald. uncontrolled5. Which of the following methods provides information about past trends?a. historicalb. correlationalc. experimentald. descriptive6. Matthew thinks that there is a relationship between parenting style and self-esteem in children. Which research method should he use?a. correlationalb. quasi-experimentalc. descriptived. historical7. When variables compete to explain the same effects, what are they sometimes called?a. contradictoryb. intertwiningc. confoundingd. interdependent8. What is another term for the independent variable?a. treatment variableb. dependent variablec. control variabled. factorial variable9. What type of variable masks the true relationship between the independent and dependent variables?a. extraneous variableb. moderator variablec. control variabled. neutral variable10. Why is a null hypothesis said to be implied?a.lt’s always directly tested.b. It’s never directly tested.c. You do not need to test it to know that it is false.d. It is stated in a question form.11. The interpretation of “differences are significant” means that the differences found are __________ _a. probably not due to chanceb. due to chancec. creative outcomesd. not dictated by the hypothesis12. The best dependent variable is defined by which of the following characteristics?a. independent of any other variable in the same studyb. sensitive to changes in the treatmentc. can be manipulated by the researcherd. interacts with the independent variable13. Which of the following is a good way to find a research topic?a. personal experienceb. getting an idea from your advisorc. looking for the next step in the research processd. All of the above.14. Which type of source is NOT typically included in a literature review?a. tertiary sourcesb. general sourcesc. secondary sourcesd. primary sources15. What is one of the advantages of using online search services?a. you are not likely to miss very muchb. this is an outdated methodc. it IS stated In a declarative formd. you can enter the data for anyone reference using a standard form16. Forcing someone to participate in a study is an example of what ethical issue/concern?a. protection from harmb. maintenance of privacyc. informed consentd. coercion17. What is the best definition of an institutional review board?a. a group of people who make decisions regarding an institution’s human resourcesb. a group of people found in most public institutions and private agencies who render a judgment as to whether experiments carried out in their facilities are free from riskc.a group of people who review the literature produced by researchers in their institution in order to keep an accounting of itd. a group of people representing many different institutions who meet to review the current literature in their respective fields18. What does the ethical principle of “sharing benefits” mean?a. all participants in the same study should receive an equal share of the benefits or subject paymentsb. all those who belong to the population being studied will share equally from the benefits the study producesc. the results of studies must be shared with the public so society may benefit from the increased knowledged. all groups involved in a study should eventually be given an opportunity to receive any treatments that were found to be effective in the study19. Which is NOT a component of informed consent?a. the purpose of the researchb. who you arec. how the participant can get a copy of the recordsd. a computer simulation of the data20. What is the purpose of a table of random numbers?a. determine the number of subjects in a studyb. decide what statistical test to usec. randomly assign people to groupsd. number items on a questionnaire21. What does generalizability refer to?a. results that may be applied to different populations in different settingsb. results that apply only to the sample studiedc. convenience samplingd. using a table of random numbers22. A table of random numbers _____________ _a. is used in non probability sampling methodsb. can be used to create a stratified samplec. works well with convenience samplingd. is a list of ordered numbers from which the researcher closes his eyes and randomly points until he obtains the desired number for his sample23. What is the most unbiased tool that can be used in random selection?a. random samplingb. table of random numbersc. quota samplingd. direct sampling24. When is a stratified sample an appropriate sampling technique?a. specific characteristics of the population are of no concernb. individuals in a population are not equalc. each member must have an equal chance of being selectedd. you have a small population25. Which of the following is NOT a probability sampling method?a. simple random samplingb. quota samplingc. stratified samplingd. cluster sampling
Unit 2
Multiple Choice
Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. The
ratio level of measurement would include which of the following?
a.
political affiliation
b.
amount of books owned
c.
order of finishing test
d. GRE
score
2.
Which level of measurement conveys the most information?
a.
nominal
b.
ordinal
c.
interval
d.
ratio
3.
Which of the following is NOT an example of reliability?
a.
consistency
b.
performing the same in the future as in the past
c. the
test doing what it is supposed to do
d.
measuring the same thing more than once with the same outcome
4. A
score that you would actually record is a(n) ______________ score.
a.
observed
b. true
c.
error
d.
false
5.
What are the two components of error scores?
a.
method error and consistent error
b.
standard error and method error
c.
trait error and standard error
d.
trait error and method error
Unit 2
Examination
97
GRM
697 The Research Process
6. A
measure of how stable a test is over time is an example of which of the
following?
a.
inter-rater reliability
b.
test-retest reliability
c.
parallel forms reliability
d.
internal consistency
7.
_____________ describes a measure used to compare two different tests with the
same group of participants to see how closely correlated the two sets of scores
are with each other.
a.
Inter-rater reliability
b.
Test-retest reliability
c.
Parallel-forms reliability
d.
Internal consistency
8.
What is the name of the individual credited with devising levels of measurement
in which
different
measurement outcomes can be classified?
a.
Binet
b.
Stevens
c.
Cattell
d.
Wechsler
9.
What is one way to obtain a criterion validity estimate?
a. ask
an expert for his or her opinion
b.
assess the underlying construct on which the test is based and correlate these
scores
with the test scores
c.
select a criterion and correlate scores on the test with scores on the criterion
d.
obtain a Pearson Product Moment correlation coefficient for two different forms
of the
test
given at different times
10.
Intelligence tests usually compare the performance of a child against other
children of the
same
age. This type of test is called a(n) ______________ test.
a.
achievement
b.
standardized
c.
norm-referenced
d.
criterion-referenced
11.
Tests such as the Denver Developmental Screening Test are used _______________.
a. as
dependent variables
b. for
entrance to a program to identify strengths and weaknesses
c. to
distinguish among people for selection purposes
d. to
determine if program goals were met
Unit 2
Examination
98
GRM
697 The Research Process
12.
What type of test defines a specific level of performance (or mastery) of some
content
domain?
a.
standardized test
b.
researcher-made test
c.
norm-referenced test
d.
criterion-referenced test
13.
The Graduate Record Examination and the Millerâs Analogy Test are generally
used for
_______________.
a.
placement
b.
selection
c.
evaluation of a program
d.
diagnosis
14.
What is the computed number for the proportion of test takers who get an item
correct?
a.
item analysis
b.
discrimination index
c.
difficulty index
d.
attitude index
15.
What is the computed number for how well an item distinguishes between the
âknowingâ
and
the âunknowingâ?
a.
item analysis
b.
discrimination index
c.
difficulty index
d.
attitude index
16.
Which one of the following is a disadvantage of multiple choice tests?
a. can
be used to assess almost anyone
b.
limits the kind of content assessed
c. are
relatively easy to score
d.
poor writers are not penalized
17.
Which level of measurement is very similar to Thurstone-like scales?
a.
ordinal
b.
nominal
c.
interval
d. ratio
Unit 2
Examination
99
GRM
697 The Research Process
18.
What is the range of 5, 8, 10, 14, and 11?
a. 48
b. 9.6
c. 10
d. 9
19.
What is the average amount that each score varies from the mean of the set of
scores?
a. the
range
b. the
standard deviation
c. the
mean
d. the
normal curve
20.
How can descriptive statistics be defined?
a.
describing elements of a distribution
b.
relating the data to a larger population
c.
developing a research question
d.
identical to inferential statistics
21.
Which measure of variability is the most direct way to measure how dispersed a
set of scores
is?
a. the
mean
b.
standard deviation
c.
range
d.
variance
22.
When computing the standard deviation, what does it mean when the sum of the
deviation
about
the mean is NOT 0?
a. The
data set has a great amount of variability.
b. The
data set has at least one extreme score.
c. The
data is too small.
d. The
mean of the data set was computed incorrectly.
23.
Which measure of variability describes the average deviation of each score from
the mean?
a.
range
b.
standard deviation
c. mode
d. mean
Unit 2
Examination
100
GRM
697 The Research Process
24.
What measure would be used to compute the average gender of subjects?
a. mean
b. mode
c.
median
d.
standard deviation
25.
Which measure would be used to describe the average class ranking of algebra
students?
a. mean
b. mode
c.
median
d.
standard deviation
Unit 4
1. Which design uses no control group and no random selection?
a. true experimental
b. quasi-experimental
c. pre-experimental
d. causal-comparative
2. What
is an example of a true experimental design?
a. pretest posttest control group design
b. one-group pretest posttest design
c. one-shot case study design
d. nonequivalent control group design
3. What
term is synonymous with internal validity?
a. generalizability
b. accuracy
c. reliability
d. control
4. Most
threats to ______________ are taken care of by the experimentâs design, while
most threats to _____________ need to be taken care of by the designer of the
experiment.
a. internal validity, external validity
b. external validity, internal validity
c. randomization, reliability
d. reliability, randomization
5. Jim
was coming down with a cold and decided to take his friendâs advice and drink
hot lemon
juice with a dash of salt to help his throat. Jimâs experimentation can be
categorized as what
type of research?
a. one-group pretest posttest design
b. quasi-experimental
c. one-shot case study
d. pretest posttest control group design
6. The experimental design that uses one group, a treatment, and a posttest is
called
_____________.
a. one-shot case study design
b. pretest posttest control group design
c. Solomon four-group design
d. one-group pretest posttest design
7. The
experimental design that uses one group and a pretest and posttest is called
______________.
a. one-group pretest posttest design
b. posttest only control group design
c. Solomon four-group design
d. one-shot case study
8. Which
allows for in-depth examination of specific behaviors?
a. nonequivalent control group design
b. static group comparison
c. single-subject design
d. one-group pretest posttest design
9. Which of the following notes that the treatment is reintroduced?
a. ABA
b. ABC
c. ABAB
d. ABAC
10. What
is the primary advantage of ABAB design?
a. addressing ethical concerns
b. lower cost
c. less time involved
d. easier training
11. If it
is not possible to randomize or administer a pretest, what is the best choice
of design?
a. Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA)
b. static group design
c. nonequivalent control group design
d. Solomon four-group design
12. What is one suggested limitation of the single subject design?
a. significant expense
b. internal validity
c. external validity
d. None of the above.
13.
Single-subject designs have roots in which of the following views of
development?
a. Piagetian
b. behavioral
c. organismic
d. social learning
14. Which
of the following would NOT be considered a major section of a research
proposal?
a. terminology
b. a review of the literature
c. the method
d. implications and limitations
15. Which
part of a research proposal is included at the authorâs discretion?
a. introduction
b. implications and limitations
c. review of literature
d. method
16. Which
is NOT a common criticism of research articles?
a. data collection not carefully controlled
b. weaknesses in design of research
c. hypothesis was not interesting
d. limitations of the study were not stated
17. Which
of the following would be found in the method section?
a. introduction
b. running head
c. rationale for the research
d. participants
18. Which
of the following would be found in the introduction section?
a. current status of topic
b. problem statement
c. timeline
d. research design
19. Which
of the following would be found in the literature review section?
a. current status of topic
b. problem statement
c. timeline
d. research design
20. In
what order are multiple authors listed on a manuscript?
a. alphabetically
b. order of contribution
c. alphabetically by institution
d. ranked by number of publications
21. A
shortened title which appears at the top of each manuscript page is called a(n)
_____________.
a. abstract
b. running head
c. introduction
d. reference
22. How
many words in length should your abstract be?
a. 50
b. 120
c. 300
d. There is no limit.
23. All
tables and graphs to be used in the manuscript usually appear in which section?
a. references
b. method
c. discussion
d. results
24. In a
manuscript, the hypothesis ______________.
a. is not always stated
b. is stated in the method section
c. may be found in the introduction
d. both a and c
25.
Manuscripts should be _______________.
a. single-spaced
b. double-spaced
c. triple-spaced
d. half-spaced