bio fall 2013 final exam

Section 1: MULTIPLE
CHOICE
Choose the best
answer for each of the following. [1pt each]

1. Christmas cactus, or Schlumbergera, has showy red flowers. Though known as “Flor de Maio”, or May
flower, in Brazil where it is found in nature, this popular houseplant starts
flowering in midDecember in the Northern Hemisphere. Experiments show that it has a critical
daylength of 12 hours. What can you conclude about regulation of flowering in
this plant?
.0/msohtmlclip1/01/clip_image002.jpg” alt=”Macintosh hd:users:eirish:desktop:christmas-cactus1.jpg”>A. It is a short day
plant.
B. It is a long day plant.
C. It is a short night plant.
D. It is day neutral.
E. It requires chilling before it can flower.

2.
It should be possible to “trick” a Christmas cactus to delay its blooming for
Valentine’s Day (February 14). Which of
the following would be the best way to do this? (Additional information: the autumnal equinox is September 22).
A. Move the plant into the refrigerator for 2
months, starting in October.
B. Make sure the plant gets at least 13 hours of
light every day, starting at the middle of September, until the middle of
November, and then give it no more than 11 hours of light.
C. Keep the plant in 24 hour light until
Groundhog’s Day (Feb. 2), and then transfer it to 12-hour days.
D. Make sure the plant gets at least 13 hours of
light, starting at the beginning of September, until February, and then give it
no more than 11 hours of light.
E. Grow the plant on a windowsill with no
artificial light until September 22.
Then, keeping it in the window, give it a flash of far red light at
midnight every day until the middle of December, and then provide natural
lighting after that.

3. Many plants defend themselves against
herbivory by producing toxins. Since
compounds that are toxic to animals are also usually toxic to plants, plants
must have strategies to avoid being poisoned by their own biochemistry. These strategies include:
A.
Isolation of toxins in special compartments
B.
Production of the toxin only after cell damage has occurred.
C. Modification of the plant’s enzymes or
receptors so that the toxin is ineffective in that plant.
D. A and B
E. All of the above.

4. Tissue damage from insects chewing on a leaf
can cause the whole plant to ramp up production of compounds that deter
herbivory. The steps that lead to this
defense response, in order, are:
A. activated receptor induces jasmonate
production, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream, jasmonate binds
transcriptional repressor, transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease
inhibitor, production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor
B. production of elicitor, elicitor binds
receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate binds
transcriptional repressor, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream,
transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor
C.
production of elicitor, elicitor binds
receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves
through the phloem stream, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor,
transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor
D. transcription factor promotes synthesis of
protease inhibitor, production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated
receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate binds transcriptional
repressor, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream
E. transcription factor promotes synthesis of
protease inhibitor, production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated
receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves through the phloem
stream, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor

5. You can find plants growing almost anywhere,
including on land that is very dry.
Which of the following is not found in plants adapted live in
arid environments?
A. Stomata tucked away in cavities or crypts on
leaves.
B. Aerenchyma, a tissue that stores oxygen
C. Deep roots for collecting water far
underground
D. A thick cuticle and dense trichomes (hairs)
on leaf surfaces
E. Succulence, the storage of water in leaves or
stems

6. A vegetative shoot apical meristem is
converted to the production of floral organs instead of leaves by the presence
of a compound known as florigen. Which
of the following steps is not involved in florigen action?
A. CO promotes the synthesis of the
transcription factor FT in the SAM.
B. FT forms a dimer with FD in the SAM.
C. Inductive photoperiod stabilizes the
transcription factor CO in leaf phloem.
D. FT moves via the phloem to the SAM.
E. FT + FD promote the transcription of AP1,
which results in sepal formation.

7. Plants grow toward the light (phototropism)
and against gravity as a result of asymmetric growth stimulated by
redistribution of the hormone
A. Ethylene
B.
Abscisic acid
C. Auxin
D. Gibberellic acid
E. Cytokinin

8. Nodulation is an adaptation that allows some
plants to survive growing on soils poor in
A. Carbon
B. Iron
C. Nitrogen
D. Magnesium
E. Boron

9. The size of the openings that allow gas
exchange for photosynthesis, the stomata, is regulated. Which of the following is not important for
opening the stomata?
A. Cell wall reinforcements that make the guard
cells curve when they fill with water
B. Blue light receptors on the plasma membrane
of guard cells that activate a proton pump
C. An increase in water potential when proton
export triggers an influx of K+ and Cl- ions in guard cells
D. Chloroplasts in guard cells, which start
producing sugars when leaves are exposed to light.
E. All of the above are important (changed
at exam)

10. Eukaryotes often engulf bacteria and other
single cells in order to acquire nutrients, but sometimes the engulfed cell
persists, which leads an endosymbiosis.
Which of the following is not an example of endosymbiosis in eukaryotes?
A. Uptake of a proteobacterium that became
mitochondria
B. Uptake of cyanobacteria that became
chloroplasts in the ancestors of green plants
C. Uptake of red algae that became the
chloroplasts of brown algae
D. Uptake of Rhizobium in root cortex cells of
legumes
E. All of the above are examples of ancient or
modern endosymbiosis.

11. Eukaryotic cells exhibit of number of
features absent from prokaryotes which permitted great diversification of
form. Which of the following is not
important in this process?
A. Cytoskeleton upon which vesicles can move
through the cell
B. Cytoskeleton that allows cells to change
shape
C. Endosymbiosis leading to energy organelles
D. Microtubules for accurate segregation of
multiple chromosomes at cell division
E. None of the above—they are all important.

12. Sexual reproduction increases diversity in a
population by all of the following except:
A. Reassortment of alleles on a chromosome
B. Increasing chromosome number in each sexual
generation
C. Blending of genomes from two different
parents
D. Promoting heterozygosity that can mask
deleterious mutations
E. All of the above increase diversity in a
population

13. The space between neighboring cell membranes
in epithelial tissue has been experimentally demonstrated to be largely due to
the type of ___________ in these cells.
A. actins
B. cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)
C. integrins
D. kinases
E. myosins

14. Which component of a feedback mechanism is
responsible for evaluating sensory inputs and then triggering appropriate
responses?
A. Effector
B. Integrator
C. Sensor
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

15. The mechanism of an antibody which occurs
when the binding of the antibody inhibits the function of the molecule it binds
to is (the) ______________.
A. agglutination
B. complement response
C. neutralization
D. opsonization
E. precipitation

16. The innate immune response:
A. lacks receptors for foreign molecules.
B. has a few receptors which bind foreign
molecules of a class of pathogens.
C. has a few receptors which bind foreign
molecules of very specific pathogens.
D. has a wide array of possible receptors which
bind foreign molecules of a class of pathogens.
E. has a wide array of possible receptors which
bind foreign molecules of very specific pathogens.

17. The notochord in amphibians has the following
function(s):
A. To become the spinal column later in
development.
B. To produce a signal that induces overlaying
ectoderm to become neural tissue.
C. To produce a signal that organizes the
somites.
D. All of the above
E. B. and C.

18. In mammalian retina rod cells the membrane
potential _________ when a photon is absorbed.
A. depolarizes
B. hyperpolarizes
C. doesn’t change
D depolarizes or hyperpolarizes depending upon
the color of the photon.
E. depolarizes or hyperpolarizes depending upon
the activity of nearby ganglion cells.

19. The movements of granules of calcium
carbonate called otoliths are involved with the following sense(s):
A. head position
B. body movement
C. hearing
D. All of the above.
E. A. and B.

20.
Binding of ATP to myosin in striated
muscle:
A. initiates the power stroke.
B. knocks calcium off of troponin.
C. recocks the myosin to its extended
conformation.
D. releases calcium from the endoplasmic
reticulum.
E. releases the myosin from the actin.

21. ADH promotes _______ by __________ the permeability
of the ___________ to water.
A. antidiuresis; decreasing; collecting ducts
B. antidiuresis; decreasing; descending limb of
Henle
C. antidiuresis; increasing; collecting ducts
D. diuresis; decreasing; collecting ducts
E. diuresis; increasing; descending limb of
Henle

22. Your aunts and uncles are killed and you
pledge to your mother to sacrifice your own hopes and aspirations of raising
one child to raise your orphaned cousins.
According to Hamilton’s rule what is the minimum number of cousins you
would need to raise for this to be worthwhile?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
E. 9

23. Which of the following are costs associated
with group living?
A. Groups are often at greater risk of detection
by predators
B. Members of groups may face more competition
for resources
C. Group living increases the risk of
transmitting communicable diseases
D. All of the above
E. A. and B.

24. Which of the following is an abiotic factor
in the environment?
A. facilitators
B. humidity
C. predators
D. prey
E. A., C. and D.

25. Which of the following statements describes
navigation?
A. Change in movement direction or speed due to
stimulus.
B. Moving passively in a current.
C. Movement towards or away from a source of
stimulus.
D.
Use of some sort of compass to direct
movement.
E. Use of landmarks to direct movement or to
find locations.

26.
Which of the following latitudes is most
likely to have a desert and why?
A. Equator; prevalent rising air cools and dries
out
B. 30°; prevalent rising air cools and dries out

C. 30°; prevalent descending air warms and dries
out
D. 30°; prevalent descending air cools and dries
out
E. 60°; prevalent rising air cools and dries out

27. Which of the following statements about
viruses is false?
A. All domains of life can be infected by
viruses.
B. Viruses likely evolved from cellular
organisms.
C. Viruses, unlike prions, contain nucleic
acids.
D. Viruses have smaller genomes than
viroids.
E. Viral nucleic acids can undergo
recombination.

28. Which of the following aquatic life zones is
most likely to have lowest species richness?
A. Coastal zone
B. Estuaries
C. Freshwater lake
D. Intertidal zone
E. Pelagic zone.

29. Which of the following is not a threat
to prairies and prairie remnants in Iowa?
A. Expansion of roadways
B. Herbicide use by nearby farms
C. Incursion of trees
D. Periodic fires
E. All of the above are threats.

30. Which of the following factors is likely to
influence a biomes temperature and precipitation?
A. Latitude.
B. Proximity to a large water mass.
C. Altitude of biome and nearby geographic
features.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C.

31. You mark and capture 20 rodents in your local
forest. In your second sample of the 100
rodents you captured 5 were marked. What
is the estimated population size of the population of the rodents?
A. 105
B. 120
C. 200
D. 400
E. 2000

32. A species which has a Type I survival curve
is most likely to:
A. have an average lifespan which is short.
B. have a few individuals which can potential be
immortal.
C. have an equal chance of dying at age 5 as at
age 50.
D. die due to senescence.
E. provide no prenatal care to their offspring.

33. Which of the following is an assumption of
simple exponential growth models:
A. Population density does not alter
per-individual growth rates (r).
B. There are limits to the size of the
population.
C. Required resources are not infinite.
D. Lag effects exists and affect the rates of
growth.
E. None of the above.

34. Which of the following would not be
considered an Allee effect?
A. The same concentration of pollution is more
lethal to one fish than it is to ten fish.
B. The reproductive success of male frogs
decreases as the number of frogs at the breeding ground decreases.
C. The likelihood of starvation increases as the
population increases in size.
D. The likelihood of a zebra being preyed upon
by a lion increases the smaller
the size of the zebra herd. (Changed at
exam)
E. All of the above are examples of Allee
effects.

35. A population is growing logistically. As the population size increases and
approaches the carrying capacity:
A. the effective per-individual growth rate (reff)
increases.
B. the effective per-individual growth rate (reff)
decreases.
C. the effective per-individual growth rate (reff)
stay the same.
D. birth rates increase while death rates
decrease.
E. birth and death rates stay constant.

36. Which of the following would be consistent
with a rectangular age structure? Note: this question was supposed to be
triangular not rectangular so B and C would be the answer. All answers will be accepted for credit since
none of them is completely right although for some of these rectangular nations
A is happening….(Happy Holidays)
A. Population growth is negative with low birth
rates.
B. Population growth is slow with high death
rates.
C. Population growth is fast with low death
rates.
D. All of the above.
E. B. and C.

37. Underdeveloped countries tend to have low growth
rates but high death and birth rates. As
countries undergo development:
A. initially death rates tend to fall along with
birth rates; population growth continues at the same pace.
B. initially death rates tend to fall but birth
rates remain high; population growth is accelerated.
C. initially death rates stay high but birth
rates climb; population growth is accelerated.
D. initially death rates climb even higher and
birth rates remain high; population growth ceases and the population decreases
in size.
E.
No pattern is commonly observed with
development.

38. Optimization is an example of:
A. density dependent selection.
B. directional selection.
C. disruptive selection.
D. neutral selection.
E. stabilizing selection.

39. Which of the following would be likely to be
observed for brood reduction species?
A. Only one egg is laid in years when resources
are scarce.
B. All eggs are incubated only after the last
egg is laid.
C. The resources provide in the eggs are much
more costly to the mother than post-natally provided resources.
D. Chicks are altruistic with siblings.
E. Resources are generally hard to obtain each
year.

40. K strategist are likely to:
A. be the prevalent plants in a prairie.
B. have a large number of offspring.
C. have young who are precocial.
D. provide no post-natal care.
E. None of the above.

41. Which of the following reproductive mechanisms
is most likely for an R-strategist animal species?
A. External Fertilzation
B. Oviparous
C. Ovoviparous
D. Vivaporous
E. All of the above are equally likely

42. Reznick researched closely related guppies in
pools on Trinidad. The guppies in
different pools had differences in their life histories due to differences in
the ____________ and these life histories were _________ when the guppies were
moved to the other pools.
A.
predator; observed to change
B. predator; not observed to change
C. prey species; observed to change
D. prey species; not observed to change
E. amount of prey; not observed to change

43. Observed differences in the life histories of
the guppies from different pools included:
A. chromosome number differences.
B. size at maturity.
C. sensory abilities.
D. location on an Eltonian pyramid.
E. None of the above.

44. Species A and Species B occupy an area and
you suspect they interact. When you
remove species A the number of individuals of species B quickly increases. Which of the following is an ecological
interaction which would be consistent with this observation along with an
appropriate explanation?
A. competition; A and B compete for a limiting
resource
B. commensalism; A benefits from the presence of
B while A has no effect on B
C. amensalism; A is harmed by the presence of B
while A has no effect on B
D. mutualism; A and B both receive a benefit
from the other
E. predation; A is the prey for predator species
B.

45. In general predation tends to ________
species diversity while competition ________ species diversity.
A. decrease; decreases
B. decrease; increases
C. increase; decreases
D. maintain; decreases
E. maintain; increases

46. Which of the following is the definition of a
community?
A. An individual in its niche.
B. A group of organisms all of the same species.
C. A group of organisms of different species
interacting with each other in an area.
D. An environment defined by its climate and
geography.
E. None of the above.

47. Deciduous forests:
A. have warm winters and hot summers.
B. have cold winters and warm summers.
C. have fewer species of birds than prairies.
D. have less precipitation on average than
prairies.
E. None of the above.

48. As the number of Batesian mimics increases:
A. the fitness of the model and mimic decreases.
B. the fitness of the model decreases and the
fitness of the mimic increases.
C. the fitness of the model increases and the
fitness of the mimic decreases.
D. the fitness of the model and mimic stay
constant.
E. the fitness of the model and mimic increases.

49.
Which of the following adaptations increases the likelihood of predator success
in catching prey?
A. Batesian Mimicry
B. Crypsis of the prey
C. Exploitative Mimicry
D. Homotpy of the prey
E. Mullerian Mimicry

50. You observe an inverted Eltonian pyramid
which contains a greater biomass of herbivores than producers. This can occur because:
A. the environment in this location allows the
organisms residing there to not give off much energy as heat.
B. this environment contains a keystone
predator.
C. the producers have very low rates of growth,
r, as compared to the herbivores.
D. the producers have very high rates of growth,
r, as compared to the herbivores.
E. the producers and the herbivores both have
very low rates of growth, r.

51. Emlen’s experiments on Indigo Buntings
demonstrated that when naïve birds were exposed to a sky rotating around
Betelgeuse (rather than Polaris) the night immediately prior to migration the
birds are able to properly orient their migration. Just this result alone suggests:
A. an axis of rotation is necessary and
sufficient for orientation.
B. an axis of rotation is necessary for
orientation.
C. an axis of rotation is sufficient for
orientation.
D. an axis of rotation is neither necessary nor
sufficient for orientation.
E. Betelgeuse is necessary for proper
orientation.

52. Fundamental niches:
A. are the same size or larger than realized
niches.
B. can be limited due to the species
evolutionary history.
C. can be limited due to competitive exclusion.
D. All of the above.
E. B. and C.

53. An Eltonian pyramid of ecosystem A has fewer
trophic levels than an Eltonian pyramid of ecosystem B. A likely explanation for this difference is:
A. Ecosystem A has less herbicide and pollution
than ecosystem B.
B. Ecosystem A has more endotherms than
ecosystem B.
C. Ecosystem A is wetter than ecosystem B.
D Ecosystem A is warmer than ecosystem B.
E. None of the above.

54. The ecological efficiency of a large reptile
is 20%. Its consumption efficiency is
50% and its assimilation efficiency is 50%.
What would be its net production efficiency?
A. 0.5%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 80%
E. 120%

55. Replacement of fossil fuels with efficient
biofuels would be expected:
A. to increase the amount of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere.
B. to stabilize the amount of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere.
C. to decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere.
D. to reduce the amount of methane in the
atmosphere.
E. None of the above.

56. A very large portion of a small island in the
Atlantic was cleared for an airfield during World War II. Soil was significantly disturbed but the
ground was not paved. After the war, the
airfield was abandoned. Years later plants and animals were observed to be
recolonizing the airfield. This would be
an example of:
A. biomagnification.
B. eusociality.
C. facilitation.
D. primary succession.
E. secondary succession.

57. Which of the following gasses protects the
surface of the planet from excess UV light?
A. carbon dioxide.
B. freon.
C. methane
D. nitrogen
E. ozone.

58. Habitat fragmentation promotes species loss
by:
A. decreasing edge effects.
B. decreasing remigration rates between habitat
patches.
C. increasing edge effects.
D. increasing remigration rates between habitat
patches.
E. B. and C.

59. Recent anthropogenic changes to mass cycles
include:
A. increases in the release of carbon dioxide
from geological stores.
B increases
in the fixation of nitrogen from the atmospheric compartment to enrich the
terrestrial compartment.
C. increases in the geological stores of water.
D. All of the above.
E. A. and B.

60.
Acid precipitation:
A. has been increasing in the Northeast United
States in the last 40 years.
B. has been observed to increase the species
richness of lakes.
C. results from the burning of coal.
D. All of the above.
E. A. and C.

61. Which of the following is not an
example of an edge effect?
A. A grassland predator invading the edges of
the forest to hunt for food.
B. Trash from a nearby highway falling onto the
shores of a lake.
C. A sudden increase of a forest predator
leading to the loss of its forest prey and then the predators localized
extinction.
D. Wind gusts blowing down trees on the outer
perimeter of the forest.
E. All of the above are examples of edge
effects.

62. Which of the following would likely lead to a
species becoming endangered?
A. Ending trade in products made from species.
B. Introduction of an invasive competitor.
C. Restoration of the species degraded
ecosystem.
D. Restoration of required disturbance to the ecosystem.
E. None of the above.

Section 2: Short Answer,
Problems and Essays
Write your
answers in the space provided below.

1. This question
tests your knowledge of the characteristics that define the superkingdoms of
eukaryotes. Fill in the blanks with the
name of the group that has these features. [1pt ea; 5pts]

A. have sacs under cell
membrane, unicellular only, have chloroplasts

B. have pseudopods, no chloroplasts, can aggregate

C. have posterior flagella, no chloroplasts, can
be multicellular

D. have unequal flagella, have chloroplasts, can
be multicellular

E. lack mitochondria but
have chloroplasts, are single celled

2. Compare and contrast the cardiovascular
system of mammals with the vascular tissue system of plants. [6pts] Many more possibilities here! First well describe in each section 2pts;
second is 1pt.

A. Describe
two similarities, either anatomical or physiological, between these two
systems. (3pts)

B. Describe
two differences, either anatomical or physiological, between these two systems.
(3pts)

3. In early spring just prior to the mating
season, a male stickleback’s belly region becomes red and he constructs a
nest. He will then aggressively defend
the nest from any intruding males. Niko
Tinbergen’s lab tested the response of mating season male sticklebacks to
artificial models of fish [figures A. through E.]. The results of his experiments is summarized
below [5pts]

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Model
Response
realistic fish (A.)
with red belly
high aggression
realistic fish (A.)
with green or grey belly little to
no aggression
misshapen fish (B. –
E.) with red underside moderate
aggression
misshapen fish (B. –
E.) with grey underside little to no
aggression

A. Based upon the above data, what aspect of the
competitor male stickleback is the necessary and sufficient sign stimulus (or
releaser) for this aggressive behavior. Explain your reasoning clearly and
completely. (3pts)

B. This behavior appears to be innate. Describe
two characteristics of innate behaviors. (2pts)

4. You are the research assistant of a famous
biologist who studies island biogeography.
He has gone missing after studying two islands: a smaller island (Y) far
from the mainland and a larger island (Z) near the mainland. The only paper left behind is the following
unlabelled figure:

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His
family wants you to prepare a final paper of his work. To begin this task on the figure above label
each of the immigration and extinction lines with the appropriate island and clearly indicate the location on
the x-axis of the predicted equilibrium species number for island Z and island Y.
(6pts)

5. You are studying the effects of nutrients and/or
minerals on the growth of plants and algae in a series of small prairie lakes.
[7pts]

A. Name one nutrient or mineral which is often a
limiting factor for growth of aquatic plants and algae. (1pt)

B. Design an experiment (with a control) that could
be used to test if the nutrient or mineral you named in A. was the limiting
factor for growth of the plants. Be sure
to indicate the expected results of the experiment and control if it was
limiting. (3pts)

C. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate
terms: The overgrowth of algae on the surface of lakes results in _______________
of the lake. The aquatic plants die due
to lack of ___________ and the aquatic animals die to lack of _____________ in
the lake. (3pts)

6. Consider the following food chain [4pts]:

Predator M
? Carnivores N/O/P ? Herbivores Q/R/S ? Producers.

A. What do you predict the initial effect on the
consumers of this food chain if the amount of producers is increased? Explain your reasoning. (2pts)

B. What do you think the effect would be on
carnivores N/O/P and herbivores Q/R/S if the predator is hunted to
extinction? Explain your reasoning.
(2pts)